Price increase after impeded purchase correctly?

This week I wanted to buy in a store multiple copies of a product that I bought before Christmas there. I found the place where the goods were stacked and having a larger Shield € 3.99 'designated (or excellent) was. At the individual parcels but lacked the barcode. At checkout you could order my purchase does not settle and sent me home. The next day I came to now to buy my five packets - and was amazed, as now individually with bar code € 4.99 it was as a prize. After all, is the 1 Euro a price increase of 20% represents, and for a product which is lying around the shop keeper since last year. At first I was speechless - but then I wanted to insist on the price, the product was awarded the day before (that was an offer that I wanted to take) - but no chance. They did not accept my objection that the procedure lumpig, illegal and was contrary to fair practices ampersand ... competition law wrong. So now I'm looking forward to your comments. Thanks in advance

The best answer

The price of dransteht is not binding and will be finally decided at checkout. You have no right to the previous day price to exist. Your objection is therefore unjustified. If you ever read through you legal basis for the sales contract you make the definitely can understand :-)

Here is a legally correct response: The display of goods in a shop is called overselling and used for invitation to treat. This praise is not binding, so also means you have no claim to the goods still on the displayed price.

The purchase contract is only concluded at checkout by the seller says 3.99 or 4.99 euros and you pay. You have the right to say no at 4.99 euros.

Competition Legally you can only say what if propagated and over longer time goods were priced wrong, but it can and it will be a mistake, and the dealer may rely on it. Your view is so completely wrong and the trader in the right. Whether may require only 3.99 euros of goodwill of the dealer, that's a whole other thing. Legally it does not have.

No, it was not Rechtswiedrig Because the business has never made an offer. This is a invitatio ad referendum (invitation to tender) In effect, the object for sale at the indicated price are you the offer. That you've done. However, the market has the offer not be accepted. Legally therefore entirely legitimate.

Morally, however, consistently questionable because I agree with you.

A trader must you first of all pure sell anything. For each dealer can search for its customers in principle.

The display on a shelf is in the legal sense is NOT available! The selection you make the trader only if you take the goods and this vorlegst at checkout (to pay). The trader can now decide whether to accept YOUR offer to want to buy the goods now (ver). And in this case, the merchant has rejected the day before, to sell the goods.

Date: 2012-01-01 Views: 0

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